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JAMB Past Questions and Answers PDF Download with details explanations JAMB Past Questions and Answers PDF Download Every year, thousands of Nigerian students sit for the Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) exam, also called UTME. To pass this exam and gain admission into your dream university, you need the right study material. One of the most powerful tools is the JAMB past questions and answers PDF download.This guide will provide you with free and premium JAMB past questions and answers for all subjects, along with smart tips on how to use them effectively for your exam preparation. InstructorMA COACH Last updatedtoday Total Viewers 1k+ ClassJAMB Why You Need JAMB Past Questions and Answers Understand Exam Pattern – JAMB often repeats questions with slight modifications.Boost Speed & Accuracy – Practicing with past questions trains you to answer faster.Improve Confidence – Familiarity with exam-style questions makes you less nervous.Smart Preparation – The JAMB past questions and answers PDF allows you to practice offline anytime. JAMB Past Questions and Answers PDF For All Subjects JAMB English Language Questions and Answers PDF VIEW DOWNLOAD TAKE CBT TEST JOIN CLASS To download complete (2000-2025 (25 years)) JAMB Past Questions and Answers, a fee of ₦500 per subject OR a fee of ₦2,000 For 4 subjects is required. We have it in PDF format. To download JAMB Past Questions and Answers contact the instructor to download it using the number or Email. Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng Please, Check back later Loading.. Join Our Daily Classes! Reading Class – Daily reading assignments with specific questions – Followed by CBT tests to assess understanding – Designed to help you pass your upcoming exams – Weekly fee: ₦200 Daily Maths Lesson – Interactive tasks and virtual classes – Complete class work and assignments – Spend just 1 hour daily to see improvement – Daily fee: ₦200 Referral Program – Refer 1 friend: pay ₦150 for the class– Refer 2 friends: pay ₦100 for the class– Refer 3 friends: pay ₦50 for the class– Refer 4+ friends: FREE class! Same benefits apply to other subjects! Join us today and excel in your studies!contact the admin to get started Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng [dflip id="967"][/dflip]To download complete (2000-2025 (25 years)) JAMB Past Questions and Answers, a fee of ₦500 per subject OR a fee of ₦2,000 For 4 subjects is required. We have it in PDF format. To download JAMB Past Questions and Answers contact the instructor to download it using the number or Email. Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng Please, Check back later Loading.. Join Our Daily Classes! Reading Class - Daily reading assignments with specific questions - Followed by CBT tests to assess understanding - Designed to help you pass your upcoming exams - Weekly fee: ₦200 Daily Maths Lesson - Interactive tasks and virtual classes - Complete class work and assignments - Spend just 1 hour daily to see improvement - Daily fee: ₦200 Referral Program - Refer 1 friend: pay ₦150 for the class- Refer 2 friends: pay ₦100 for the class- Refer 3 friends: pay ₦50 for the class- Refer 4+ friends: FREE class! Same benefits apply to other subjects! 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Reading Class – Daily reading assignments with specific questions – Followed by CBT tests to assess understanding – Designed to help you pass your upcoming exams – Weekly fee: ₦200 Daily Maths Lesson – Interactive tasks and virtual classes – Complete class work and assignments – Spend just 1 hour daily to see improvement – Daily fee: ₦200 Referral Program – Refer 1 friend: pay ₦150 for the class– Refer 2 friends: pay ₦100 for the class– Refer 3 friends: pay ₦50 for the class– Refer 4+ friends: FREE class! Same benefits apply to other subjects! Join us today and excel in your studies!contact the admin to get started Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng [dflip id="970"][/dflip]To download complete (2000-2025 (25 years)) JAMB Past Questions and Answers, a fee of ₦500 per subject OR a fee of ₦2,000 For 4 subjects is required. We have it in PDF format. 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Join us today and excel in your studies!contact the admin to get started Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng JAMB Chemistry Questions and Answers PDF PDF VIEW DOWNLOAD TAKE CBT TEST JOIN CLASS To download complete (2000-2025 (25 years)) JAMB Past Questions and Answers, a fee of ₦500 per subject OR a fee of ₦2,000 For 4 subjects is required. We have it in PDF format. To download JAMB Past Questions and Answers contact the instructor to download it using the number or Email. Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng TAKE TEST 0 2024 JAMB CHEMISTRY CBT TEST The number of attempts remaining is 1 1 / 40 1. Which of the following has the highest hydroxyl ion concentration? (A) HCl (B) HNO3 (C) NaOH (D) NH4OH A B C D Topic: Acids, Bases, and pH Correct Option: (C) NaOH Detailed Explanation: NaOH (sodium hydroxide) is a strong base, meaning it dissociates completely in water to produce a high concentration of hydroxyl ions (OH⁻). HCl (hydrochloric acid) and HNO₃ (nitric acid) are strong acids, producing H⁺ ions. NH₄OH (ammonium hydroxide) is a weak base, which only partially dissociates, leading to a much lower OH⁻ concentration compared to NaOH Topic: Acids, Bases, and pH Correct Option: (C) NaOH Detailed Explanation: NaOH (sodium hydroxide) is a strong base, meaning it dissociates completely in water to produce a high concentration of hydroxyl ions (OH⁻). HCl (hydrochloric acid) and HNO₃ (nitric acid) are strong acids, producing H⁺ ions. NH₄OH (ammonium hydroxide) is a weak base, which only partially dissociates, leading to a much lower OH⁻ concentration compared to NaOH 2 / 40 2. The electron was discovered by (A) Milikan (B) Dalton (C) Moseley (D) Thompson A B C D Topic: Atomic Structure Correct Option: (D) Thompson Detailed Explanation: J.J. Thomson (often referred to as Thompson) discovered the electron in 1897 through experiments with cathode ray tubes, demonstrating the existence of negatively charged particles. Millikan is known for the oil drop experiment to determine electron charge. Dalton proposed the atomic theory. Moseley is associated with atomic number and X-ray spectra. Topic: Atomic Structure Correct Option: (D) Thompson Detailed Explanation: J.J. Thomson (often referred to as Thompson) discovered the electron in 1897 through experiments with cathode ray tubes, demonstrating the existence of negatively charged particles. Millikan is known for the oil drop experiment to determine electron charge. Dalton proposed the atomic theory. Moseley is associated with atomic number and X-ray spectra. 3 / 40 3. An important ore of aluminum is (A) bauxite (B) galena (C) cassiterite (D) dolomite A B C D Topic: Metallurgy / Ores Correct Option: (A) bauxite Detailed Explanation: Bauxite (Al₂O₃·nH₂O) is the primary ore from which aluminum is extracted. Galena (PbS) is an ore of lead. Cassiterite (SnO₂) is an ore of tin. Dolomite (CaMg(CO₃)₂) is an ore of calcium and magnesium Topic: Metallurgy / Ores Correct Option: (A) bauxite Detailed Explanation: Bauxite (Al₂O₃·nH₂O) is the primary ore from which aluminum is extracted. Galena (PbS) is an ore of lead. Cassiterite (SnO₂) is an ore of tin. Dolomite (CaMg(CO₃)₂) is an ore of calcium and magnesium 4 / 40 4. The alkali metals are never found uncombined because they (A) are very reactive (B) are very strong (C) have high densities (D) have high melting points A B C D Topic: Group 1 Elements (Alkali Metals) Correct Option: (A) are very reactive Detailed Explanation: Alkali metals (Group 1 elements like lithium, sodium, potassium) are highly reactive due to their tendency to lose their single valence electron and form stable positive ions. This high reactivity means they readily combine with other elements and are thus always found as compounds in nature, not as free elements. Topic: Group 1 Elements (Alkali Metals) Correct Option: (A) are very reactive Detailed Explanation: Alkali metals (Group 1 elements like lithium, sodium, potassium) are highly reactive due to their tendency to lose their single valence electron and form stable positive ions. This high reactivity means they readily combine with other elements and are thus always found as compounds in nature, not as free elements. 5 / 40 5. A dense white fume is formed when hydrogen chloride gas reacts with (A) CO2 (B) NH3 (C) NO2 (D) H2S A B C D Topic: Chemical Reactions / Ammonia Correct Option: (B) NH3 Detailed Explanation: When hydrogen chloride gas (HCl) reacts with ammonia gas (NH₃), a dense white fume of ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) solid is formed. The reaction is: NH₃(g) + HCl(g) → NH₄Cl(s) Topic: Chemical Reactions / Ammonia Correct Option: (B) NH3 Detailed Explanation: When hydrogen chloride gas (HCl) reacts with ammonia gas (NH₃), a dense white fume of ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) solid is formed. The reaction is: NH₃(g) + HCl(g) → NH₄Cl(s) 6 / 40 6. The factors that lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction is (A) pressure (B) temperature (C) catalyst (D) concentration A B C D Topic: Chemical Kinetics / Catalysis Correct Option: (C) catalyst Detailed Explanation: A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, thereby increasing the rate of reaction without being consumed itself. Pressure, temperature, and concentration can affect reaction rates but do not lower the activation energy. Topic: Chemical Kinetics / Catalysis Correct Option: (C) catalyst Detailed Explanation: A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, thereby increasing the rate of reaction without being consumed itself. Pressure, temperature, and concentration can affect reaction rates but do not lower the activation energy. 7 / 40 7. Calculate the mass of copper dense when a current of 0.5A passes through a solute of CuSO4 for 90 mins (A) 0.5g (B) 0.6g (C) 0.448g (D) 0.896g A B C D Topic: Electrochemistry (Faraday's Laws) Correct Option: (D) 0.896g Detailed Explanation: Using Faraday's First Law of Electrolysis: m = (Z * I * t) / F, where Z = molar mass / (n * F) or directly m = (M * I * t) / (n * F). For Cu, M = 64 g/mol , n = 2 (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu). I = 0.5 A, t = 90 minutes = 90 * 60 = 5400 seconds. F = 96500 C/mol. m = (64 g/mol * 0.5 A * 5400 s) / (2 * 96500 C/mol) m = (172800) / (193000) m ≈ 0.8953 g, which is approximately 0.896g Topic: Electrochemistry (Faraday's Laws) Correct Option: (D) 0.896g Detailed Explanation: Using Faraday's First Law of Electrolysis: m = (Z * I * t) / F, where Z = molar mass / (n * F) or directly m = (M * I * t) / (n * F). For Cu, M = 64 g/mol , n = 2 (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu). I = 0.5 A, t = 90 minutes = 90 * 60 = 5400 seconds. F = 96500 C/mol. m = (64 g/mol * 0.5 A * 5400 s) / (2 * 96500 C/mol) m = (172800) / (193000) m ≈ 0.8953 g, which is approximately 0.896g 8 / 40 8. Mild oxidation of propan-1-ol will yield (A) propane (B) propanone (C) propanal (D) propanoic acid Topic: Organic Chemistry (Alcohols Oxidation) Correct Option: (C) propanal Detailed Explanation: Propan-1-ol is a primary alcohol. Mild oxidation of a primary alcohol yields an aldehyde (propanal in this case). Stronger oxidation would lead to a carboxylic acid (propanoic acid). Propanone is a ketone, formed from secondary alcohol oxidation. Propane is an alkane A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Alcohols Oxidation) Correct Option: (C) propanal Detailed Explanation: Propan-1-ol is a primary alcohol. Mild oxidation of a primary alcohol yields an aldehyde (propanal in this case). Stronger oxidation would lead to a carboxylic acid (propanoic acid). Propanone is a ketone, formed from secondary alcohol oxidation. Propane is an alkane. Topic: Organic Chemistry (Alcohols Oxidation) Correct Option: (C) propanal Detailed Explanation: Propan-1-ol is a primary alcohol. Mild oxidation of a primary alcohol yields an aldehyde (propanal in this case). Stronger oxidation would lead to a carboxylic acid (propanoic acid). Propanone is a ketone, formed from secondary alcohol oxidation. Propane is an alkane. 9 / 40 9. Ozone is(A) an allotrope of sulphur(B) an allotrope of oxygen(C) an isotope of oxygen(D) a diatomic element A B C D Topic: Allotropy / Elements Correct Option: (B) an allotrope of oxygen Detailed Explanation:Ozone (O₃) is an allotrope of oxygen, meaning it is a different structural form of the same element (oxygen). The most common form of oxygen is diatomic oxygen (O₂). Topic: Allotropy / Elements Correct Option: (B) an allotrope of oxygen Detailed Explanation:Ozone (O₃) is an allotrope of oxygen, meaning it is a different structural form of the same element (oxygen). The most common form of oxygen is diatomic oxygen (O₂). 10 / 40 10. If the difference in electronegativity of elements X and Y is 2.9, the bond that will be formed between them is(A) covalent(B) metallic(C) ionic(D) dative A B C D Topic: Chemical Bonding Correct Option: (C) ionic Detailed Explanation:A large difference in electronegativity (typically > 1.7 or 2.0, depending on the scale) indicates that one atom will essentially transfer electrons to the other, forming an ionic bond. A difference of 2.9 is well within the range for ionic bonding. Topic: Chemical Bonding Correct Option: (C) ionic Detailed Explanation:A large difference in electronegativity (typically > 1.7 or 2.0, depending on the scale) indicates that one atom will essentially transfer electrons to the other, forming an ionic bond. A difference of 2.9 is well within the range for ionic bonding. 11 / 40 11. A compound that gives a brick red colour to a non-luminous flame is likely to contain(A) aluminum ions(B) copper ions(C) sodium ions(D) calcium ions A B C D Topic: Flame Tests Correct Option: (D) calcium ions Detailed Explanation:In a flame test, calcium ions (Ca²⁺) produce a characteristic brick-red or orange-red flame. Sodium ions produce a strong golden yellow flame, and copper ions produce a blue-green flame. Topic: Flame Tests Correct Option: (D) calcium ions Detailed Explanation:In a flame test, calcium ions (Ca²⁺) produce a characteristic brick-red or orange-red flame. Sodium ions produce a strong golden yellow flame, and copper ions produce a blue-green flame. 12 / 40 12. Ethyne is passed through a hot tube containing organo-nickel catalyst to produce(A) methanol(B) benzene(C) cyclohexane(D) polythene A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Reactions of Alkynes) Correct Option: (B) benzene Detailed Explanation:When ethyne (acetylene) is passed through a red hot tube containing an organo-nickel catalyst (like a copper tube), it undergoes trimerization (cyclotrimerization) to form benzene. Topic: Organic Chemistry (Reactions of Alkynes) Correct Option: (B) benzene Detailed Explanation:When ethyne (acetylene) is passed through a red hot tube containing an organo-nickel catalyst (like a copper tube), it undergoes trimerization (cyclotrimerization) to form benzene. 13 / 40 13. The petroleum fraction that is used in heating furnaces in industries is(A) lubricating oil(B) diesel oil(C) gasoline(D) kerosene A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Petroleum Fractions) Correct Option: (B) diesel oil Detailed Explanation:Diesel oil (also known as gas oil) is commonly used as a fuel for industrial heating furnaces and diesel engines due to its high energy content. Kerosene is used for domestic heating and jet fuel. Gasoline (petrol) is for internal combustion engines. Lubricating oil is for reducing friction. Topic: Organic Chemistry (Petroleum Fractions) Correct Option: (B) diesel oil Detailed Explanation:Diesel oil (also known as gas oil) is commonly used as a fuel for industrial heating furnaces and diesel engines due to its high energy content. Kerosene is used for domestic heating and jet fuel. Gasoline (petrol) is for internal combustion engines. Lubricating oil is for reducing friction. 14 / 40 14. How many unpaired electrons are there in the p-orbitals of a nitrogen atom?(A)1(B) 3(C) 5(D)2 A B C D Topic: Electronic Configuration / Atomic Structure Correct Option: (B) 3 Detailed Explanation:The atomic number of nitrogen (N) is 7. Its electron configuration is 1s²2s²2p³. According to Hund's rule, the three electrons in the 2p subshell will individually occupy each of the three p-orbitals (2px, 2py, 2pz) before pairing up. Therefore, there are 3 unpaired electrons in the p-orbitals. Topic: Electronic Configuration / Atomic Structure Correct Option: (B) 3 Detailed Explanation:The atomic number of nitrogen (N) is 7. Its electron configuration is 1s²2s²2p³. According to Hund's rule, the three electrons in the 2p subshell will individually occupy each of the three p-orbitals (2px, 2py, 2pz) before pairing up. Therefore, there are 3 unpaired electrons in the p-orbitals. 15 / 40 15. An insoluble salt can be prepared by(A) the action of dilute acid on an insoluble base(B) neutralizing a weak acid by a strong base(C) double decomposition(D) displacement reaction A B C D Topic: Preparation of Salts Correct Option: (C) double decomposition Detailed Explanation:Insoluble salts are commonly prepared by precipitation through double decomposition (also known as metathesis). This involves mixing two soluble salt solutions, which react to form an insoluble product that precipitates out. For example, AgNO₃(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO₃(aq), where AgCl is an insoluble salt Topic: Preparation of Salts Correct Option: (C) double decomposition Detailed Explanation:Insoluble salts are commonly prepared by precipitation through double decomposition (also known as metathesis). This involves mixing two soluble salt solutions, which react to form an insoluble product that precipitates out. For example, AgNO₃(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO₃(aq), where AgCl is an insoluble salt 16 / 40 16. An organic compound with a pleasant smell is likely to have a general formula(A) CnH2n+1COOCnH2n+1(B) CnH2n+1CHO(C) CnH2n+1COCnH2n+1(D) CnH2n+1COOH A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Esters) Correct Option: (A) CnH2n+1COOCnH2n+1 Detailed Explanation:Esters, which have the general formula R-COO-R' (represented by CnH2n+1COOCnH2n+1), are well-known for their pleasant, fruity smells and are responsible for the aromas of many fruits and artificial flavorings. CnH2n+1CHO are aldehydes, CnH2n+1COCnH2n+1 are ketones, and CnH2n+1COOH are carboxylic acids. Topic: Organic Chemistry (Esters) Correct Option: (A) CnH2n+1COOCnH2n+1 Detailed Explanation:Esters, which have the general formula R-COO-R' (represented by CnH2n+1COOCnH2n+1), are well-known for their pleasant, fruity smells and are responsible for the aromas of many fruits and artificial flavorings. CnH2n+1CHO are aldehydes, CnH2n+1COCnH2n+1 are ketones, and CnH2n+1COOH are carboxylic acids. 17 / 40 17. Commercial bleaching can be carried out using(A) SO2 and NH3(B) H2S and Cl2(C) Cl₂ and SO2(D) NH3 and Cl₂ A B C D Topic: Industrial Chemistry / Bleaching Agents Correct Option: (C) Cl₂ and SO2 Detailed Explanation:Chlorine (Cl₂) and sulfur dioxide (SO₂) are both common bleaching agents. Chlorine bleaches by oxidation, while sulfur dioxide bleaches by reduction (it is a reducing agent). Topic: Industrial Chemistry / Bleaching Agents Correct Option: (C) Cl₂ and SO2 Detailed Explanation:Chlorine (Cl₂) and sulfur dioxide (SO₂) are both common bleaching agents. Chlorine bleaches by oxidation, while sulfur dioxide bleaches by reduction (it is a reducing agent). 18 / 40 18. The alkyne that will give a white precipitate with silver trioxonitrate (v) is(A) CH3CH2C = CCH2CH3(B) CH3C = CCH2CH2CH3(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2C = CH(D) CH3CH2CH2C = CCH2CH3 A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Reactions of Alkynes) Correct Option: (C) CH3CH2CH2CH2C = CH Detailed Explanation:Terminal alkynes (those with a triple bond at the end of the chain, having a hydrogen atom directly attached to a sp-hybridized carbon) are acidic enough to react with ammoniacal silver trioxonitrate(V) (Tollens' reagent) to form a white precipitate of a silver alkynide. Option (C) is a terminal alkyne (1-hexyne). The other options are internal alkynes and will not react. Topic: Organic Chemistry (Reactions of Alkynes) Correct Option: (C) CH3CH2CH2CH2C = CH Detailed Explanation:Terminal alkynes (those with a triple bond at the end of the chain, having a hydrogen atom directly attached to a sp-hybridized carbon) are acidic enough to react with ammoniacal silver trioxonitrate(V) (Tollens' reagent) to form a white precipitate of a silver alkynide. Option (C) is a terminal alkyne (1-hexyne). The other options are internal alkynes and will not react. 19 / 40 19. The saponification of an alkanoate to produce soap and alkanol involves(A) dehydration(B) esterification(C) hydrolysis(D) oxidation A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Saponification) Correct Option: (C) hydrolysis Detailed Explanation:Saponification is the alkaline hydrolysis of fats and oils (which are esters of glycerol and fatty acids). It involves the breaking of ester linkages by water (hydrolysis), typically in the presence of a strong base (like NaOH or KOH), to produce soap (a salt of a fatty acid) and glycerol (an alkanol). Topic: Organic Chemistry (Saponification) Correct Option: (C) hydrolysis Detailed Explanation:Saponification is the alkaline hydrolysis of fats and oils (which are esters of glycerol and fatty acids). It involves the breaking of ester linkages by water (hydrolysis), typically in the presence of a strong base (like NaOH or KOH), to produce soap (a salt of a fatty acid) and glycerol (an alkanol). 20 / 40 20. Water can be obtained as the only product during the(A) combustion of hydrocarbons(B) neutralization of an acid by a base(C) combustion of hydrogen(D) electrolysis of brine A B C D Topic: Chemical Reactions / Water Correct Option: (C) combustion of hydrogen Detailed Explanation:The combustion of hydrogen (2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)) produces water as the only product.(A) Combustion of hydrocarbons produces CO₂ and H₂O.(B) Neutralization produces salt and H₂O.(D) Electrolysis of brine produces hydrogen, chlorine, and NaOH. Topic: Chemical Reactions / Water Correct Option: (C) combustion of hydrogen Detailed Explanation:The combustion of hydrogen (2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)) produces water as the only product.(A) Combustion of hydrocarbons produces CO₂ and H₂O.(B) Neutralization produces salt and H₂O.(D) Electrolysis of brine produces hydrogen, chlorine, and NaOH. 21 / 40 21. Lucas reagent is used to test for(A) alkanes(B) alkanols(C) amines(D) amides A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Tests for Alcohols) Correct Option: (B) alkanols Detailed Explanation:Lucas reagent (a solution of concentrated HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂) is used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary alkanols (alcohols) based on the rate at which they form a cloudy precipitate (alkyl halides). Tertiary alcohols react immediately, secondary within minutes, and primary alcohols react very slowly or not at all. Topic: Organic Chemistry (Tests for Alcohols) Correct Option: (B) alkanols Detailed Explanation:Lucas reagent (a solution of concentrated HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂) is used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary alkanols (alcohols) based on the rate at which they form a cloudy precipitate (alkyl halides). Tertiary alcohols react immediately, secondary within minutes, and primary alcohols react very slowly or not at all. 22 / 40 22. The uncovered raw food that is sold along major roads is likely to contain some amounts of(A) lead(B) silver(C) copper(D) sodium A B C D Topic: Environmental Chemistry / Pollution Correct Option: (A) lead Detailed Explanation:Food sold along major roads is susceptible to contamination from vehicle exhaust emissions, which historically contained lead compounds (from leaded gasoline). While leaded gasoline is largely phased out, lead from past emissions can persist in dust and soil, posing a risk of contamination. Topic: Environmental Chemistry / Pollution Correct Option: (A) lead Detailed Explanation:Food sold along major roads is susceptible to contamination from vehicle exhaust emissions, which historically contained lead compounds (from leaded gasoline). While leaded gasoline is largely phased out, lead from past emissions can persist in dust and soil, posing a risk of contamination. 23 / 40 23. What is the pH of a 0.001moldm⁻³ solution of KOH?(A) 3(B) 11(C) 14(D) 0 A B C D Topic: Acids, Bases, and pH Correct Option: (B) 11 Detailed Explanation:KOH is a strong base and dissociates completely: KOH → K⁺ + OH⁻.So, [OH⁻] = 0.001 mol dm⁻³ = 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³.pOH = -log[OH⁻] = -log(10⁻³) = 3.Since pH + pOH = 14,pH = 14 - pOH = 14 - 3 = 11. Topic: Acids, Bases, and pH Correct Option: (B) 11 Detailed Explanation:KOH is a strong base and dissociates completely: KOH → K⁺ + OH⁻.So, [OH⁻] = 0.001 mol dm⁻³ = 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³.pOH = -log[OH⁻] = -log(10⁻³) = 3.Since pH + pOH = 14,pH = 14 - pOH = 14 - 3 = 11. 24 / 40 24. The reaction that takes place in a Daniell cell is(A) double decomposition(B) neutralization(C) redox(D) direct combination A B C D Topic: Electrochemistry (Galvanic Cells) Correct Option: (C) redox Detailed Explanation:A Daniell cell is a galvanic (voltaic) cell where chemical energy is converted into electrical energy through a spontaneous redox (reduction-oxidation) reaction. Zinc is oxidized (Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻) and copper ions are reduced (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu). Topic: Electrochemistry (Galvanic Cells) Correct Option: (C) redox Detailed Explanation:A Daniell cell is a galvanic (voltaic) cell where chemical energy is converted into electrical energy through a spontaneous redox (reduction-oxidation) reaction. Zinc is oxidized (Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻) and copper ions are reduced (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu). 25 / 40 25. The reddish brown rust on iron roofing sheets consists of(A) FeO.H₂O(B) Fe2O3.3H2O(C) Fe3O4.2H2O(D) Fe3+(H2O)6 A B C D Topic: Corrosion / Rusting Correct Option: (B) Fe2O3.3H2O Detailed Explanation:Rust is primarily hydrated iron(III) oxide. The general formula for rust is Fe₂O₃·nH₂O. Among the given options, Fe₂O₃·3H₂O is the most accurate representation of rust's composition. Topic: Corrosion / Rusting Correct Option: (B) Fe2O3.3H2O Detailed Explanation:Rust is primarily hydrated iron(III) oxide. The general formula for rust is Fe₂O₃·nH₂O. Among the given options, Fe₂O₃·3H₂O is the most accurate representation of rust's composition. 26 / 40 26. The efficiency of a solid catalyst to increase reaction rates depends on its(A) quantity(B) surface area(C) solubility(D) concentration A B C D Topic: Chemical Kinetics / Catalysis Correct Option: (B) surface area Detailed Explanation:For a solid catalyst, the reaction typically occurs on its surface. Therefore, a larger surface area provides more sites for reactant molecules to adsorb and react, significantly increasing the efficiency of the catalyst. Topic: Chemical Kinetics / Catalysis Correct Option: (B) surface area Detailed Explanation:For a solid catalyst, the reaction typically occurs on its surface. Therefore, a larger surface area provides more sites for reactant molecules to adsorb and react, significantly increasing the efficiency of the catalyst. 27 / 40 27. How many hydrogen atoms does single ring cycloalkane have less to the corresponding open-chain alkane?(A) 2(B) 4(C) 3(D) 1 A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Alkanes and Cycloalkanes) Correct Option: (A) 2 Detailed Explanation:The general formula for an open-chain alkane is CnH2n+2. The general formula for a single-ring cycloalkane is CnH2n. Comparing CnH2n+2 and CnH2n, the cycloalkane has 2 fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding open-chain alkane (with the same number of carbon atoms). For example, propane (C₃H₈) vs cyclopropane (C₃H₆). Topic: Organic Chemistry (Alkanes and Cycloalkanes) Correct Option: (A) 2 Detailed Explanation:The general formula for an open-chain alkane is CnH2n+2. The general formula for a single-ring cycloalkane is CnH2n. Comparing CnH2n+2 and CnH2n, the cycloalkane has 2 fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding open-chain alkane (with the same number of carbon atoms). For example, propane (C₃H₈) vs cyclopropane (C₃H₆). 28 / 40 28. The component of an atom that contributes least to its mass is the(A) proton(B) nucleus(C) electron(D) neutron A B C D Topic: Atomic Structure Correct Option: (C) electron Detailed Explanation:Electrons have a very small mass compared to protons and neutrons. A proton or neutron is approximately 1836 times more massive than an electron. The nucleus contains protons and neutrons, so it contributes almost all of the atom's mass. Topic: Atomic Structure Correct Option: (C) electron Detailed Explanation:Electrons have a very small mass compared to protons and neutrons. A proton or neutron is approximately 1836 times more massive than an electron. The nucleus contains protons and neutrons, so it contributes almost all of the atom's mass. 29 / 40 29. The most abundant element on the earth's crust is(A) nitrogen(B) hydrogen(C) fluorine(D) oxygen A B C D Topic: Abundance of Elements Correct Option: (D) oxygen Detailed Explanation:Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust, making up about 46% of its mass, primarily in silicate minerals. Silicon is the second most abundant. Nitrogen is most abundant in the atmosphere, not the crust. Topic: Abundance of Elements Correct Option: (D) oxygen Detailed Explanation:Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust, making up about 46% of its mass, primarily in silicate minerals. Silicon is the second most abundant. Nitrogen is most abundant in the atmosphere, not the crust. 30 / 40 30. The property used in the industrial preparation of nitrogen and oxygen from air is(A) rate of diffusion(B) melting point(C) boiling point(D) solubility A B C D Topic: Industrial Chemistry / Separation Techniques Correct Option: (C) boiling point Detailed Explanation:Nitrogen and oxygen are separated from liquid air by fractional distillation, which relies on the difference in their boiling points. Oxygen has a boiling point of -183°C, and nitrogen has a boiling point of -196°C. Topic: Industrial Chemistry / Separation Techniques Correct Option: (C) boiling point Detailed Explanation:Nitrogen and oxygen are separated from liquid air by fractional distillation, which relies on the difference in their boiling points. Oxygen has a boiling point of -183°C, and nitrogen has a boiling point of -196°C. 31 / 40 31. Which of the following alloys contain iron?(A) Duralumin and steel(B) Brass and bronze(C) steel and permalloy(D) soft solder and duralumin A B C D Topic: Alloys Correct Option: (C) steel and permalloy Detailed Explanation:Steel is primarily an alloy of iron and carbon. Permalloy is an alloy of nickel and iron, known for its magnetic properties. Duralumin is an aluminum alloy. Brass is copper and zinc, bronze is copper and tin. Soft solder is usually lead and tin. Topic: Alloys Correct Option: (C) steel and permalloy Detailed Explanation:Steel is primarily an alloy of iron and carbon. Permalloy is an alloy of nickel and iron, known for its magnetic properties. Duralumin is an aluminum alloy. Brass is copper and zinc, bronze is copper and tin. Soft solder is usually lead and tin. 32 / 40 32. Vulcanization involves the removal of(A) the single bond(B) the double bond(C) a monomer(D) a polymer A B C D Topic: Polymers / Rubber Correct Option: (B) the double bond Detailed Explanation:Vulcanization of rubber involves heating rubber with sulfur. The sulfur atoms react with the double bonds present in the polyisoprene chains, forming cross-links (sulfur bridges) between them. This process reduces the number of double bonds and enhances the rubber's strength, elasticity, and durability. Topic: Polymers / Rubber Correct Option: (B) the double bond Detailed Explanation:Vulcanization of rubber involves heating rubber with sulfur. The sulfur atoms react with the double bonds present in the polyisoprene chains, forming cross-links (sulfur bridges) between them. This process reduces the number of double bonds and enhances the rubber's strength, elasticity, and durability. 33 / 40 33. The filter in a cigarette reduces the nicotine content by(A) adsorption(B) absorption(C) evaporation(D) burning A B C D Topic: Separation Techniques / Materials Science Correct Option: (A) adsorption Detailed Explanation:Cigarette filters primarily work by adsorption. The filter material (often cellulose acetate) has a porous structure that traps (adsorbs) particulate matter and some gaseous components, including nicotine, onto its surface, thereby reducing the amount inhaled. Topic: Separation Techniques / Materials Science Correct Option: (A) adsorption Detailed Explanation:Cigarette filters primarily work by adsorption. The filter material (often cellulose acetate) has a porous structure that traps (adsorbs) particulate matter and some gaseous components, including nicotine, onto its surface, thereby reducing the amount inhaled. 34 / 40 34. The principal constituent of natural gas is(A) ethane(B) butane(C) methane(D) propane A B C D Topic: Hydrocarbons / Fuels Correct Option: (C) methane Detailed Explanation:Natural gas is primarily composed of methane (CH₄), typically making up 70-90% or more of its volume. Other hydrocarbons like ethane, propane, and butane are present in smaller quantities. Topic: Hydrocarbons / Fuels Correct Option: (C) methane Detailed Explanation:Natural gas is primarily composed of methane (CH₄), typically making up 70-90% or more of its volume. Other hydrocarbons like ethane, propane, and butane are present in smaller quantities. 35 / 40 35. A gas sample with an original volume of 6.5dm³ is heated and allowed to expand to 19.5dm³ at constant pressure. What is the ratio if the final absolute temperature to the initial absolute temperature?(A) 3:1(B) 8:3(C) 5:2(D) 5:4 A B C D Topic: Gas Laws (Charles's Law) Correct Option: (A) 3:1 Detailed Explanation:At constant pressure, Charles's Law states that V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂.We are given V₁ = 6.5 dm³ and V₂ = 19.5 dm³.We need to find the ratio T₂/T₁.From Charles's Law, T₂/T₁ = V₂/V₁.T₂/T₁ = 19.5 dm³ / 6.5 dm³ = 3.So, the ratio of the final absolute temperature to the initial absolute temperature (T₂:T₁) is 3:1 Topic: Gas Laws (Charles's Law) Correct Option: (A) 3:1 Detailed Explanation:At constant pressure, Charles's Law states that V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂.We are given V₁ = 6.5 dm³ and V₂ = 19.5 dm³.We need to find the ratio T₂/T₁.From Charles's Law, T₂/T₁ = V₂/V₁.T₂/T₁ = 19.5 dm³ / 6.5 dm³ = 3.So, the ratio of the final absolute temperature to the initial absolute temperature (T₂:T₁) is 3:1 36 / 40 36. A pure solid usually melts(A) over a wide range of temperature(B) over a narrow range of temperature(C) at a lower temperature than the impure one(D) at the same temperature as the pure one A B C D Topic: States of Matter / Melting Point Correct Option: (B) over a narrow range of temperature Detailed Explanation:A pure crystalline solid has a sharp, characteristic melting point (or melts over a very narrow temperature range). Impurities disrupt the crystal lattice and cause the solid to melt over a wider range and at a lower temperature than the pure substance (melting point depression). Topic: States of Matter / Melting Point Correct Option: (B) over a narrow range of temperature Detailed Explanation:A pure crystalline solid has a sharp, characteristic melting point (or melts over a very narrow temperature range). Impurities disrupt the crystal lattice and cause the solid to melt over a wider range and at a lower temperature than the pure substance (melting point depression). 37 / 40 37. The oxidation states of chlorines in HOCl, HClO₂, and HClO₃ are respectively(A) +1, +3, +5(B) +1,+5,+7(C) -1, +5 +7(D) -1,-5+7 A B C D Topic: Oxidation Numbers Correct Option: (A) +1, +3, +5 Detailed Explanation:To find the oxidation state of Cl, assume H is +1 and O is -2. HOCl: (+1) + x + (-2) = 0 ⇒ x - 1 = 0 ⇒ x = +1. HClO₂: (+1) + x + 2(-2) = 0 ⇒ x - 3 = 0 ⇒ x = +3. HClO₃: (+1) + x + 3(-2) = 0 ⇒ x - 5 = 0 ⇒ x = +5.Therefore, the oxidation states are +1, +3, and +5. Topic: Oxidation Numbers Correct Option: (A) +1, +3, +5 Detailed Explanation:To find the oxidation state of Cl, assume H is +1 and O is -2. HOCl: (+1) + x + (-2) = 0 ⇒ x - 1 = 0 ⇒ x = +1. HClO₂: (+1) + x + 2(-2) = 0 ⇒ x - 3 = 0 ⇒ x = +3. HClO₃: (+1) + x + 3(-2) = 0 ⇒ x - 5 = 0 ⇒ x = +5.Therefore, the oxidation states are +1, +3, and +5. 38 / 40 38. A reaction takes place spontaneously if(A) AG = 0(B) AS 0(C) AH 0 A B C D Topic: Thermodynamics (Gibbs Free Energy) Correct Option: (C) AH 0 would lead to a positive ΔG, making the reaction non-spontaneous.(D) ΔG > 0 indicates a non-spontaneous reaction. Topic: Thermodynamics (Gibbs Free Energy) Correct Option: (C) AH 0 would lead to a positive ΔG, making the reaction non-spontaneous.(D) ΔG > 0 indicates a non-spontaneous reaction. 39 / 40 39. Sodium hydroxide solution can be conveniently stored in a container made of(A) copper(B) aluminum(C) zinc(D) lead A B C D Topic: Chemical Properties of Sodium Hydroxide / Amphoteric Metals Correct Option: (A) copper Detailed Explanation:Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base. Aluminum, zinc, and lead are amphoteric metals, meaning they react with strong bases (like NaOH) to form soluble compounds (aluminates, zincates, plumbites, respectively) and hydrogen gas. Therefore, NaOH solutions should not be stored in containers made of these metals. Copper is not amphoteric and does not react with strong bases, making it a suitable material for storing NaOH. Topic: Chemical Properties of Sodium Hydroxide / Amphoteric Metals Correct Option: (A) copper Detailed Explanation:Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base. Aluminum, zinc, and lead are amphoteric metals, meaning they react with strong bases (like NaOH) to form soluble compounds (aluminates, zincates, plumbites, respectively) and hydrogen gas. Therefore, NaOH solutions should not be stored in containers made of these metals. Copper is not amphoteric and does not react with strong bases, making it a suitable material for storing NaOH. 40 / 40 40. By what process is an alkene converted to an alkane?(a) polymerization(b) elimination(c) substitution(d) addition A B C D Topic: Organic Chemistry (Reactions of Alkenes) Correct Option: (d) addition Detailed Explanation:Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a carbon-carbon double bond. To convert an alkene to an alkane (a saturated hydrocarbon), the double bond must be broken, and hydrogen atoms added across it. This process is called hydrogenation, which is a type of addition reaction. For example, ethene (C₂H₄) reacts with hydrogen (H₂) in the presence of a catalyst (like nickel) to form ethane (C₂H₆).Polymerization involves joining many monomers. Elimination involves removing atoms to form a double or triple bond. Substitution involves replacing one atom or group with another. Topic: Organic Chemistry (Reactions of Alkenes) Correct Option: (d) addition Detailed Explanation:Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a carbon-carbon double bond. To convert an alkene to an alkane (a saturated hydrocarbon), the double bond must be broken, and hydrogen atoms added across it. This process is called hydrogenation, which is a type of addition reaction. For example, ethene (C₂H₄) reacts with hydrogen (H₂) in the presence of a catalyst (like nickel) to form ethane (C₂H₆).Polymerization involves joining many monomers. Elimination involves removing atoms to form a double or triple bond. Substitution involves replacing one atom or group with another. Your score is 0% Send feedback Loading.. Join Our Daily Classes! 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Join us today and excel in your studies!contact the admin to get started Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng JAMB Biology Questions and Answers PDF PDF VIEW DOWNLOAD TAKE CBT TEST JOIN CLASS To download complete (2000-2025 (25 years)) JAMB Past Questions and Answers, a fee of ₦500 per subject OR a fee of ₦2,000 For 4 subjects is required. We have it in PDF format. To download JAMB Past Questions and Answers contact the instructor to download it using the number or Email. Phone / WhatsApp Number +2349061221656, +2348062853040 Email admin@macoach.com.ng 6 JAMB BIOLOGY 2021 CBT 1 / 40 The taxon containing the least similar set of organisms is the (a) species (b) genus (c) order (d) kingdom A B C D 2 / 40 2. Which of the following is true about sex-linked characters? (a) they are dominant and linked to X-chromosome (b) They are recessive and linked to X-chromosome (c) They are dominant and linked to Y-chromosome (d) they are recessive and linked to Y-chromosome A B C D 3 / 40 The smallest bone in the human body is the (a) stapes (b) femur (c) malleus (d) incus A B C D Explanation: The three smallest bones in the human body are the ossicles, located in the middle ear: the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup). Of these three, the stapes is the smallest. The femur (thigh bone) is the largest and strongest bone in the body Explanation: The three smallest bones in the human body are the ossicles, located in the middle ear: the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup). Of these three, the stapes is the smallest. The femur (thigh bone) is the largest and strongest bone in the body 4 / 40 The instrument with which atmospheric pressure is measured is the (a) wind vane (b) hydrometer (c) barometer (d) hygrometer A B C D The instrument with which atmospheric pressure is measured is the (c) barometer. Explanation: A barometer measures atmospheric pressure. A wind vane indicates the direction of the wind. A hydrometer measures the relative density (specific gravity) of liquids. A hygrometer measures humidity (the amount of water vapor in the air). The instrument with which atmospheric pressure is measured is the (c) barometer. Explanation: A barometer measures atmospheric pressure. A wind vane indicates the direction of the wind. A hydrometer measures the relative density (specific gravity) of liquids. A hygrometer measures humidity (the amount of water vapor in the air). 5 / 40 5. Question: Cutaneous respiration is peculiar to: Options: (a) Pisces (b) amphibians (c) reptiles (d) Aves A B C D Correct Option: (b) amphibians Explanation: Cutaneous respiration is the process of breathing through the skin. This method is prominent in amphibians (like frogs), whose moist, permeable skin is rich in blood capillaries, allowing for efficient gas exchange to supplement their lungs. Correct Option: (b) amphibians Explanation: Cutaneous respiration is the process of breathing through the skin. This method is prominent in amphibians (like frogs), whose moist, permeable skin is rich in blood capillaries, allowing for efficient gas exchange to supplement their lungs. 6 / 40 Question: The content of which of the following is acidic? Options: (a) mouth (b) stomach (c) Duodenum (d) stomach & duodenum A B C D Correct Option: (b) stomach Explanation: The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid (HCl), creating a highly acidic environment (pH 1.5-3.5) that kills pathogens and activates digestive enzymes like pepsin. The mouth is slightly alkaline, and the duodenum is alkaline due to secretions from the pancreas and bile from the liver. Correct Option: (b) stomach Explanation: The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid (HCl), creating a highly acidic environment (pH 1.5-3.5) that kills pathogens and activates digestive enzymes like pepsin. The mouth is slightly alkaline, and the duodenum is alkaline due to secretions from the pancreas and bile from the liver. 7 / 40 7 Question: Height, skin color, weight and colour of the eyes are examples of: Options: (a) morphological variation (b) physiological variation (c) discontinuous variations (d) sex-linked characters A B C D Correct Option: (a) morphological variation Explanation: Morphological variation refers to differences in the physical form and structure of organisms. Height, skin color, and weight are all observable physical traits. They are also examples of continuous variation, as they show a wide range of intermediate values. Correct Option: (a) morphological variation Explanation: Morphological variation refers to differences in the physical form and structure of organisms. Height, skin color, and weight are all observable physical traits. They are also examples of continuous variation, as they show a wide range of intermediate values. 8 / 40 Question: When an allele can express itself both in the homozygous pairing and the heterozygous pairing, it is said to be: Options: (a) recessive (b) dominant (c) an allelomorph (d) genetic A B C D Correct Option: (b) dominant Explanation: A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele. It expresses its trait when present in either a homozygous state (e.g., TT) or a heterozygous state (e.g., Tt). A recessive allele is only expressed in the homozygous state (e.g., tt). Correct Option: (b) dominant Explanation: A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele. It expresses its trait when present in either a homozygous state (e.g., TT) or a heterozygous state (e.g., Tt). A recessive allele is only expressed in the homozygous state (e.g., tt). 9 / 40 9. Question: Beriberi is a deficiency symptom of vitamin: Options: (a) A (b) K (c) B1 (d) C A B C D Correct Option: (c) B1 Explanation: Beriberi is a disease caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness, Vitamin K causes poor blood clotting, and Vitamin C causes scurvy. Correct Option: (c) B1 Explanation: Beriberi is a disease caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness, Vitamin K causes poor blood clotting, and Vitamin C causes scurvy. 10 / 40 10. Question: Which of the following animals has diastema? Options: (a) fish (b) Human (c) Dog (d) rabbit A B C D Correct Option: (d) rabbit Explanation: A diastema is a natural gap between the incisors and premolars. It is a common feature in herbivores like rabbits and rodents, which lack canine teeth. The gap allows them to manipulate food within the mouth. Correct Option: (d) rabbit Explanation: A diastema is a natural gap between the incisors and premolars. It is a common feature in herbivores like rabbits and rodents, which lack canine teeth. The gap allows them to manipulate food within the mouth. 11 / 40 11. Question: The plant hormone that is responsible for ripening of fruits is: Options: (a) auxin (b) gibberellin (c) acetylene (d) ethylene A B C D Correct Option: (d) ethylene Explanation: Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that plays a crucial role in the ripening of fruits, as well as in the aging (senescence) of plant parts. Correct Option: (d) ethylene Explanation: Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that plays a crucial role in the ripening of fruits, as well as in the aging (senescence) of plant parts. 12 / 40 12. Question: Which of the following blood types has no antibody? Options: (a) O (b) A (c) AB (d) O A B C D Correct Option: (c) AB Explanation: Blood type AB has both A and B antigens on its red blood cells. To avoid self-destruction, its plasma contains neither Anti-A nor Anti-B antibodies. This is why people with AB blood are known as "universal recipients." Correct Option: (c) AB Explanation: Blood type AB has both A and B antigens on its red blood cells. To avoid self-destruction, its plasma contains neither Anti-A nor Anti-B antibodies. This is why people with AB blood are known as "universal recipients." 13 / 40 13. Question: The bacteria that can convert atmospheric nitrogen to soil nitrate are called: Options: (a) denitrifying bacteria (b) nitrogen-fixing bacteria (c) putrefying bacteria (d) aerobic bacteria A B C D Correct Option: (b) nitrogen-fixing bacteria Explanation: Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert unusable atmospheric nitrogen gas (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), which is then converted into nitrates that plants can absorb and use. Denitrifying bacteria do the opposite, converting nitrates back to nitrogen gas. Correct Option: (b) nitrogen-fixing bacteria Explanation: Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert unusable atmospheric nitrogen gas (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), which is then converted into nitrates that plants can absorb and use. Denitrifying bacteria do the opposite, converting nitrates back to nitrogen gas. 14 / 40 14. Question: In which of the following organisms is diffusion efficient as a means of gaseous exchange? Options: (a) rat (b) lizard (c) earthworm (d) cockroach A B C D Correct Option: (c) earthworm Explanation: Diffusion is only efficient for gas exchange in small organisms with a large surface-area-to-volume ratio and a short diffusion path. An earthworm's long, thin, moist body is perfectly suited for this. Larger animals like rats and lizards require complex respiratory systems (lungs). Correct Option: (c) earthworm Explanation: Diffusion is only efficient for gas exchange in small organisms with a large surface-area-to-volume ratio and a short diffusion path. An earthworm's long, thin, moist body is perfectly suited for this. Larger animals like rats and lizards require complex respiratory systems (lungs). 15 / 40 15. Question: The cell organelle that is responsible for respiration is the: Options: (a) mitochondrion (b) ribosome (c) lysosome (d) endoplasmic reticulum A B C D Correct Option: (a) mitochondrion Explanation: The mitochondrion is known as the "powerhouse of the cell" because it is the primary site of cellular respiration, the process that generates ATP (the cell's energy currency). Correct Option: (a) mitochondrion Explanation: The mitochondrion is known as the "powerhouse of the cell" because it is the primary site of cellular respiration, the process that generates ATP (the cell's energy currency). 16 / 40 16. Question: Taenia saginata is associated with: Options: (a) fish (b) pork (c) beef (d) dog A B C D Correct Option: (c) beef Explanation: Taenia saginata is the beef tapeworm, which humans can get by eating undercooked, infected beef. Taenia solium is the pork tapeworm. Correct Option: (c) beef Explanation: Taenia saginata is the beef tapeworm, which humans can get by eating undercooked, infected beef. Taenia solium is the pork tapeworm. 17 / 40 17. Question: The genetic make-up of an organism is known as its: Options: (a) phenotype (b) blood type (c) genotype (d) allelomorph. A B C D Correct Option: (c) genotype Explanation: The genotype refers to the specific combination of alleles (genes) an organism possesses for a particular trait. The phenotype is the observable physical expression of that genotype Correct Option: (c) genotype Explanation: The genotype refers to the specific combination of alleles (genes) an organism possesses for a particular trait. The phenotype is the observable physical expression of that genotype 18 / 40 18. Question: The seat of intelligence in the brain is the: Options: (a) Pons varolli (b) thalamus (c) cerebrum (d) cerebellum A B C D Correct Option: (c) cerebrum Explanation: The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as intelligence, memory, reasoning, consciousness, and voluntary actions. Correct Option: (c) cerebrum Explanation: The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as intelligence, memory, reasoning, consciousness, and voluntary actions. 19 / 40 19. Question: The study of how and why population size changes over time is known as: Options: (a) population estimation (b) population cycle (c) population ecology (d) population dynamics A B C D Correct Option: (d) population dynamics Explanation: Population dynamics is the field of study concerned with the factors that influence the size, density, distribution, and age structure of populations over time. Correct Option: (d) population dynamics Explanation: Population dynamics is the field of study concerned with the factors that influence the size, density, distribution, and age structure of populations over time. 20 / 40 20. Question: Which of the following sits comfortably at the borderline between living and non-living things? Options: (a) virus (b) bacteria (c) protozoan (d) alga A B C D Correct Option: (a) virus Explanation: Viruses are often considered to be on the borderline of life. They are inert and non-living when outside a host cell but can replicate and carry out life processes by hijacking the machinery of a living cell they infect. Correct Option: (a) virus Explanation: Viruses are often considered to be on the borderline of life. They are inert and non-living when outside a host cell but can replicate and carry out life processes by hijacking the machinery of a living cell they infect. 21 / 40 21. Question: The pigment utilized by the chameleon for changing colour is: Options: (a) pneumatophore (b) carotene (c) melanin (d) chromatophore AA B C D Correct Option: (d) chromatophore Explanation: Chromatophores are specialized pigment-containing cells that can expand and contract to change the color and pattern of an animal's skin. Chameleons use these cells for camouflage and communication. Correct Option: (d) chromatophore Explanation: Chromatophores are specialized pigment-containing cells that can expand and contract to change the color and pattern of an animal's skin. Chameleons use these cells for camouflage and communication. 22 / 40 22. Question: Which of the following serves as a passage for both urine and semen? Options: (a) urinary bladder (b) urethra (c) ureter (d) seminal vesicle A B C D Correct Option: (b) urethra Explanation: In males, the urethra is the tube that transports urine from the bladder out of the body. It also serves as the channel through which semen is ejaculated during reproduction. Correct Option: (b) urethra Explanation: In males, the urethra is the tube that transports urine from the bladder out of the body. It also serves as the channel through which semen is ejaculated during reproduction. 23 / 40 23. Question: Which of the following is not a process in urine formation? Options: (a) detoxification (b) ultrafiltration (c) hormonal secretion (d) selective re-absorption A B C D Correct Option: (a) detoxification Explanation: The three key processes in urine formation within the kidney's nephrons are ultrafiltration, selective re-absorption, and secretion. Detoxification is primarily a function of the liver, which breaks down toxins in the blood. Correct Option: (a) detoxification Explanation: The three key processes in urine formation within the kidney's nephrons are ultrafiltration, selective re-absorption, and secretion. Detoxification is primarily a function of the liver, which breaks down toxins in the blood. 24 / 40 24. Question: The water cycle is maintained mainly by: Options: (a) evaporation (b) condensation (c) evaporation and condensation (d) transpiration and respiration A B C D Correct Option: (c) evaporation and condensation Explanation: The water cycle is driven by the sun. Evaporation turns liquid water into vapor, and condensation turns that vapor back into liquid, forming clouds. These two processes are the primary engines of the global water cycle, leading to precipitation. Correct Option: (c) evaporation and condensation Explanation: The water cycle is driven by the sun. Evaporation turns liquid water into vapor, and condensation turns that vapor back into liquid, forming clouds. These two processes are the primary engines of the global water cycle, leading to precipitation. 25 / 40 25. Question: Which of the following involves only one living organism? Options: (a) predation (b) commensalism (c) saprophytism (d) mutualism A B C D Correct Option: (c) saprophytism Explanation: Predation, commensalism, and mutualism are all relationships between two or more living organisms. Saprophytism is a mode of nutrition where one living organism (like a fungus) feeds on dead and decaying organic matter. Correct Option: (c) saprophytism Explanation: Predation, commensalism, and mutualism are all relationships between two or more living organisms. Saprophytism is a mode of nutrition where one living organism (like a fungus) feeds on dead and decaying organic matter. 26 / 40 26. Question: The competition between Paramecium Aurelia and Paramecium caudatum is: Options: (a) interspecific (b) intraspecific (c) intergeneric (d) intrageneric A B C D Correct Option: (a) interspecific Explanation: Interspecific competition occurs between individuals of different species competing for the same limited resources. Since P. Aurelia and P. caudatum are different species, their competition is interspecific. Correct Option: (a) interspecific Explanation: Interspecific competition occurs between individuals of different species competing for the same limited resources. Since P. Aurelia and P. caudatum are different species, their competition is interspecific. 27 / 40 27. Question: The theory of use and disuse was propounded by: Options: (a) Jean Lamarck (b) Gregor Mendel (c) Charles Darwin A B C D Correct Option: (a) Jean Lamarck Explanation: Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed the theory of evolution based on the inheritance of acquired characteristics, which included the principle of "use and disuse" (organs become stronger with use and weaker with disuse). Correct Option: (a) Jean Lamarck Explanation: Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed the theory of evolution based on the inheritance of acquired characteristics, which included the principle of "use and disuse" (organs become stronger with use and weaker with disuse). 28 / 40 28. Question: The number of chromosomes in the cheek cell and the sperm cell of a human are respectively: Options: (a) 50 & 25 (b) 46 & 23 (c) 23 & 46 (d) 92 & 46 A B C D Correct Option: (b) 46 & 23 Explanation: A human cheek cell is a somatic (body) cell and is diploid (2n), containing 46 chromosomes. A sperm cell is a gamete (sex cell) and is haploid (n), containing half the number, which is 23 chromosomes. Correct Option: (b) 46 & 23 Explanation: A human cheek cell is a somatic (body) cell and is diploid (2n), containing 46 chromosomes. A sperm cell is a gamete (sex cell) and is haploid (n), containing half the number, which is 23 chromosomes. 29 / 40 29. Question: The bright coloured eye spots on the hind wings of a moth are an example of: Options: (a) mimicry (b) cryptic colouration (c) disruptive colouration (d) warning colouration A B C D Correct Option: (d) warning colouration Explanation: These large "eyespots" serve as startle or warning coloration. When flashed, they can surprise a predator by resembling the eyes of a larger animal, giving the moth a chance to escape. Correct Option: (d) warning colouration Explanation: These large "eyespots" serve as startle or warning coloration. When flashed, they can surprise a predator by resembling the eyes of a larger animal, giving the moth a chance to escape. 30 / 40 30. Question: Given that both parents are heterozygous for a particular trait the probability that an offspring will be recessive for that trait is: Options: (a) ¼ (b) ½ (c) ¾ (d) 1 A B C D Correct Option: (a) ¼ Explanation: In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents (e.g., Tt x Tt), the resulting offspring genotypes have a ratio of 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt. The recessive phenotype is only expressed by the tt genotype, which has a probability of 1 in 4, or ¼. Correct Option: (a) ¼ Explanation: In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents (e.g., Tt x Tt), the resulting offspring genotypes have a ratio of 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt. The recessive phenotype is only expressed by the tt genotype, which has a probability of 1 in 4, or ¼. 31 / 40 31. Question: Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? Options: (a) Ulna (b) skull (c) sternum (d) rib A B C D Correct Option: (a) Ulna Explanation: The axial skeleton forms the central axis of the body and includes the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum. The ulna is a bone in the forearm, which is part of the appendicular skeleton (limbs and girdles). Correct Option: (a) Ulna Explanation: The axial skeleton forms the central axis of the body and includes the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum. The ulna is a bone in the forearm, which is part of the appendicular skeleton (limbs and girdles). 32 / 40 32. Question: The feature that makes locomotion in water easy for fish is the: Options: (a) lateral line (b) streamlined body (c) slimy body (d) scaly body A B C D Correct Option: (b) streamlined body Explanation: A streamlined body shape, which is tapered at both ends, significantly reduces water resistance (drag). This allows the fish to move through the water with maximum efficiency and minimal energy expenditure. Correct Option: (b) streamlined body Explanation: A streamlined body shape, which is tapered at both ends, significantly reduces water resistance (drag). This allows the fish to move through the water with maximum efficiency and minimal energy expenditure. 33 / 40 33. The fingerprint shown above is (a) loop (b) whorl (c) arch (d) compound A B C D C: This is arch fingerprint. Arch fingerprints have ridges that form a hill.NB: i. Loops are the most common type of fingerprints. They constitute about 65% of the encountered fingerprintsii. Arches are the least common, they constitute about 5% of all fingerprints. C: This is arch fingerprint. Arch fingerprints have ridges that form a hill.NB: i. Loops are the most common type of fingerprints. They constitute about 65% of the encountered fingerprintsii. Arches are the least common, they constitute about 5% of all fingerprints. 34 / 40 34. The diagram shows what type of variation? (a) morphological (b) physiological (c) both (d) neither A B C D A: Fingerprints show morphological variation A: Fingerprints show morphological variation 35 / 40 35. The structure is effective for (a) resolving paternity dispute (b) detection (c) ancestral tracing (d) B and C A B C D B: Since no two persons can have exactly the same fingerprint, fingerprints can be used in crime detection. B: Since no two persons can have exactly the same fingerprint, fingerprints can be used in crime detection. 36 / 40 36. Question: The only blood vessel that begins and ends in capillaries is: Options: (a) aorta (b) hepatic artery (c) hepatic portal vein (d) renal vein A B C D Correct Option: (c) hepatic portal vein Explanation: This describes a portal venous system. The hepatic portal vein is formed by the capillaries from the digestive system and ends in the capillary-like sinusoids of the liver. This allows the liver to process absorbed nutrients directly from the gut. Correct Option: (c) hepatic portal vein Explanation: This describes a portal venous system. The hepatic portal vein is formed by the capillaries from the digestive system and ends in the capillary-like sinusoids of the liver. This allows the liver to process absorbed nutrients directly from the gut. 37 / 40 37. Question: Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme? Options: (a) erepsin (b) lipase (c) trypsin (d) bile A B C D Correct Option: (d) bile Explanation: Bile is a substance produced by the liver that aids in digestion by emulsifying fats (breaking large fat globules into smaller ones). It is not an enzyme. Erepsin, lipase, and trypsin are all enzymes that chemically break down proteins and fats. Correct Option: (d) bile Explanation: Bile is a substance produced by the liver that aids in digestion by emulsifying fats (breaking large fat globules into smaller ones). It is not an enzyme. Erepsin, lipase, and trypsin are all enzymes that chemically break down proteins and fats. 38 / 40 38. Question: The vertebrate group that shows the most parental care to their offspring is: Options: (a) amphibian (b) mammalia (c) aves (d) reptilia A B C D Correct Option: (b) mammalia Explanation: Mammals exhibit the most extensive and complex parental care, which includes feeding their young with milk (lactation), protection, and teaching essential survival skills over a prolonged period. Correct Option: (b) mammalia Explanation: Mammals exhibit the most extensive and complex parental care, which includes feeding their young with milk (lactation), protection, and teaching essential survival skills over a prolonged period. 39 / 40 39. Question: The hardest material in the human body is: Options: (a) enamel (b) pulp cavity (c) bone (d) dentine A B C D Correct Option: (a) enamel Explanation: Tooth enamel, the outer layer of the teeth, is the hardest substance in the human body due to its high concentration of minerals, primarily hydroxyapatite. It is even harder than bone. Correct Option: (a) enamel Explanation: Tooth enamel, the outer layer of the teeth, is the hardest substance in the human body due to its high concentration of minerals, primarily hydroxyapatite. It is even harder than bone. 40 / 40 40. Question: Which of the following bears naked seeds? Options: (a) mango (b) moss (c) cycad (d) fern A B C D Correct Option: (c) cycad Explanation: Plants with "naked seeds" (seeds not enclosed in an ovary/fruit) are called gymnosperms. Cycads are a group of gymnosperms. Mango is an angiosperm (seeds in a fruit), while mosses and ferns are non-seed plants that reproduce with spores. Correct Option: (c) cycad Explanation: Plants with "naked seeds" (seeds not enclosed in an ovary/fruit) are called gymnosperms. Cycads are a group of gymnosperms. Mango is an angiosperm (seeds in a fruit), while mosses and ferns are non-seed plants that reproduce with spores. Your score is 0% Submit your review Send feedback Loading.. Join Our Daily Classes! Reading Class – Daily reading assignments with specific questions – Followed by CBT tests to assess understanding – Designed to help you pass your upcoming exams – Weekly fee: ₦200 Daily Maths Lesson – Interactive tasks and virtual classes – Complete class work and assignments – Spend just 1 hour daily to see improvement – Daily fee: ₦200 Referral Program – Refer 1 friend: pay ₦150 for the class– Refer 2 friends: pay ₦100 for the class– Refer 3 friends: pay ₦50 for the class– Refer 4+ friends: FREE class! Same benefits apply to other subjects! 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